jgm00067-Skorecki-DNA-Assertion

According to tradition, the Levites should also show a genetic signature from a common paternal patrilineal ancestor.

 

How does the above paragraph prove
(a) this mutation began 3300 years ago
(b) it began in Asia
(c) Aaron was the first to have it.

What is this tradition BS, I thought these people were talking facts, science .. Tradition = mythology / imagination, not facts.

All people on earth have DNA traits of their ancestors. These things are not 'signatures' they are mutations and these mutations only tie modern populations to modern populations. When the Israelites were in Egypt they never ceased to marry/produce children with the Egyptians.

There is no way to trace that mutation to that time, but it could just have easily came from an Egyptian, Philistine or Canaanite.. the Israelites married them all.

Judges 3:5  And the children of Israel dwelt among the Canaanites, Hittites, and Amorites, and Perizzites, and Hivites, and Jebusites

Judges 3:6  And they took their daughters to be their wives, and gave their daughters to their sons

Leviticus 24:10  And the son of an Israelitish woman, whose father was an Egyptian

Of course any Asian/African male could have been the first to spread this mutation. Get a grip, there is no way to connect this mutation to any ancient male.. just wishful thinking.