jgm00050-Skorecki-DNA-Assertion

He (Hammar) confirmed that his findings are consistent -- over 80 percent of self-identified Cohanim have a common set of markers.

 

How does the above paragraph prove
(a) this mutation began 3300 years ago
(b) it began in Asia
(c) Aaron was the first to have it.

 

Above he says 80% and below they write

For more than 90 percent of the Cohens to share the same genetic markers

 

What are the ramifications of this statement

*  Self identified Cohainm? Explain how they would identify themselves as Cohainm other than the hearsay information repeated by grandma?

*  Do these Europeans think they can track their family trees for 3000 years ? If so they must be idiots what you need to know about family trees http://encyclopediaegypt.com/israel/f1000.htm

*  Over 80% of the ->SELF IDENTIFIED<- Cohanim have a common set of markers.

a) Is it a single mutation or is it different mutations

 

NOW WHAT

*  If this mutation came from Aaron and it is always passed from father to son

+  It would be the same marker

*  If 80% of those who called themselves cohanim had it, that means 20% do not

+ That means 20% of those calling themselves cohanim are liars/brainwashed or idiots or

+ That means 20% of cohanim wives are harlots.