Having the CMH is not a proof of one's being a Cohen, for the mother's side is also significant in determining one's Cohen status.
At present, there are no ramifications in Jewish law due to this discovery.
How does the above paragraph prove
(a) this mutation began 3300 years ago
(b) it began in Asia
(c) Aaron was the first to have it.
(a) this mutation began 3300 years ago
(b) it began in Asia
(c) Aaron was the first to have it.
What kind of "Jewish" law would be enacted if this did prove these people were descendants of the Cohen?
They have no laws against the legal prostution, they have no laws against the massive homosexual gathering every year, so what would this mutation have to do with any "Jewish laws"?
Make note of all the fluff.. the point of this whole caper is to 'prove' these 'jews' are connected to the Israelites, and 99.9% of the whole text is fluff.
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